"but when what is perfect comes, the partial will be set aside."

1 Corinthians 13:10, NET

This passage is the center of a debate between cessationists (those who believe tongues and the sign gifts have ceased) and continuationists (those who believe the sign gifts continue today). Since this passage indicates that the sign gifts would cease when "what is perfect" has come, the focus of the debate is the identification of "what is perfect."

I intend to show that "what is perfect" is indeed a reference to the Word of God. I will also argue against the continuationist assertion that "what is perfect" is a reference to Christ and the Second Coming, and also against the Preterist assertion that "what is perfect" is a reference to the new tabernacle--the Church.

A Brief Word Study

The NET Bible translates the Greek word telieos as "what is perfect." The same word is translated "perfection" in the NIV, "the perfect" in the NASB, and "that which is perfect" in the KJV. Teleios means perfect, mature, finished, or complete. It is actually an adjective which is used here as a noun, in the same way adjectives are used as nouns in the common phrase, "The good, the bad, and the ugly." It is neuter in gender, which will be important in our discussion on its meaning.

Not a Reference to Christ

Cessationists tend to argue that this verse references Christ and the Second Coming. The line of reasoning is usually this: What is perfect? And what can I see face to face? Hmmm...people have faces, and the only perfect person is Jesus, so that must be it!

There are several reasons to reject such an interpretation, and they will be expanded upon below:

  1. There is no positive argument to suggest that "what is perfect" is a reference to Christ. It is merely an assumption with no theological or scriptural context to support it.
  2. There are good reasons to reject such an interpretation.
  3. There are positive reasons to adopt another interpretation--that "what is perfect" is a reference to the canon.

01. No reason to assume it is Christ

There is no real reason offered by cessationists to assume the passage is referencing Christ. Generally, it is assumed that it is either A) the Bible or B) Christ. If not A, then it must be B. This is a faulty assumption, as no reason has been given for why "Christ" is even an option. Furthermore, there are a number of other options (such as the Preterist interpretation, which says the perfect thing is the tabernacle of the Church).

02. Reason to reject the "Christ" interpretation
  • Teleios is a neuter adjective. If it were referring to Christ, it would be masculine. Thus, the text itself suggests another interpretation.
  • The text suggests a relationship between the perfect which comes and the partial which is set aside. The "Christ" interpretation makes little sense of this, while the "Bible" interpretation fits well, with prophecy, special knowledge, and tongues being partial revelation, and the Bible being perfect revelation).

03. Reason to assume the "Bible" interpretation

External Evidence for Cessation

These include the historical disappearance of tongues by the second century, the unhealthy and unbiblical emphasis on tongues of those churches that claim the sign gifts continue to this day (1 Cor. 12:28, 30-31; 14), and the similarities between supposed occurrences of tongues in the Christian church with the supposed occurrence of tongues outside the church. It is also strange that tongues are notably absent in churches that are not specifically charismatic in doctrine. The early Church did not seek tongues, so why is it that churches today that do not seek tongues do not exhibit them?

More than this, however, is the lack of positive evidence for the existence of tongues today. Even if it could be proven that the sign gifts may still be active today, or at the very least that there is no biblical statement to the contrary, proof has not been produced that the sign gifts are occurring today. The claims of many to the gift of healing have been consistently disproved rather than affirmed. Those who claim to speak in tongues have only to record themselves so that a linguist may analyze and identify the language, yet this has never been done. Even without the Biblical statement about the cessation of the sign gifts, we are left without a single scrap of positive evidence that the sign gifts do occur today.

The Preterist View

Preterism can be generally explained as a theological view which interprets prophecy as having largely been fulfilled in the past (namely, before the end of the first century). What follows is an overview of the Preterist argument for cessation, followed by a refutation of this argument.

The Perfect Tabernacle

Ephesians 4:13Ephesians 4:13
until we all attain to the unity of the faith and of the knowledge of the Son of God – a mature person, attaining to the measure of Christ's full stature. speaks of Christians attaining unity of faith and knowledge, becoming a perfect (mature) person, no longer being children. This parallels 1 Corinthians 13 closely, and uses the word telieos (along with aner, which is is "male" or "man," with an emphasis on maturity rather than gender) to describe the Church. Hebrews 9:11Hebrews 9:11
But now Christ has come as the high priest of the good things to come. He passed through the greater and more perfect tent not made with hands, that is, not of this creation refers to Christ passing through a "more perfect tent," again similar to our 1 Corinthians 13 passage. According to Preterists, the sign gifts were given in order that the Church would become the perfect tabernacle for the Spirit, at which point the gifts would no longer be needed. Hebrews 9:8-9Hebrews 9:8-9
The Holy Spirit is making clear that the way into the holy place had not yet appeared as long as the old tabernacle was standing. 9 This was a symbol for the time then present, when gifts and sacrifices were offered that could not perfect the conscience of the worshiper. suggests that the perfect tabernacle was not made manifest until the first and earthly tabernacle was destroyed. History tells us that the first and earthly tabernacle was destroyed in A.D. 70. This explains why tongues disappeared before the beginning of the second century.

Preterists also tend to argue that tongues were for the Jews (Acts, 1 Corinthians 1:22), who were always present when tongues were being spoken. The destruction of the earthyl temple would coincide with the incorporation of the Jewish people into the true tabernacle--the Church. This is the point at which the "perfect" or "complete" tabernacle was made manifest--when God's chosen people were incorporated. Paul quotes Isaiah when he says that God will speak to His people with tongues, but they will not listen (1 Corinthians 14:21-22), which is a sign of coming judgment from God. This, according to Preterists, is yet another affirmation that the sign gifts ceased with the destruction of the temple.

The Refutation

There are a number of points which can be argued, including the Ephesians verse used by Preterists. However, I will focus on Hebrews and the tabernacle.

The Preterist argument misunderstands the Hebrews verses which talk about the tabernacle. Hebrews 9:8Hebrews 9:8
The Holy Spirit is making clear that the way into the holy place had not yet appeared as long as the old tabernacle was standing. speaks of the old tabernacle--the original tabernacle, or perhaps symbolically the Old Testament system of approaching God--rather than the second, as the Preterist interpretation suggests. Hebrews 9:11Hebrews 9:11
But now Christ has come as the high priest of the good things to come. He passed through the greater and more perfect tent not made with hands, that is, not of this creation speaks of the old tabernacle as a thing of the past, and of Christ having already come through the more perfect tabernacle. This is important. First, God was not in the second tabernacle as He was in the first tabernacle--a fact that appears to dispute the Preterist argument. If God were not even in the second tabernacle, why would He require that it be destroyed before moving on to another tabernacle? Second, Hebrews was written about A.D. 66. The second temple wasn't destroyed until A.D. 70. Since Hebrews (66) says the less perfect had already passed away and the more perfect had already come, it is impossible for this to be a reference to the second temple, which wasn't destroyed until 4 years later (70).

Also, why would prophecy (a gift for believers, not unbelievers) cease along with tongues at the destruction of the temple?

A more detailed explanation of the Preterist argument for cessation is available at the Preterist Archive.